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Unit 11: Chebyshev’s Inequality



                                                                           2
            Theorem 1: Suppose X is a random variable with mean  and finite variance  . Then for every  Notes
             > 0.
            Proof: We shall prove the theorem for continuous r.vs. The proof in the discrete  case is very
            similar.
            Suppose X is a random variable with probability density function f. From the definition of the
            variance of X, we have
                                                  +
                                     = E [(x –  ) ] =   (x –  ) f(x)dx.  2      2
                                                  
                                       
            Suppose  > 0 is given. Put     .  Now we divide the integral into three parts as shown in
                                    1
                                       
            Fig. 1.
                      1          1           
                  2
                             2
                                                            2
                                            2
                      (x   ) f(x)dx     (x   ) f(x)dx     (x   ) f(x)dx  ...(2)
                                   1           1 
                                              Figure  11.1



















            Since the integrand (x – m)2 f(x) is non-negative, from (2) we get the inequality
                     1          
                                           2
                            2
                  2
                      (x   ) f(x)dx     (x   ) f(x)dx                       ...(3)
                                  1 
                                                                           2
                                                                            2
                                                                       2
            Now for any x  ]–,  –  ], we have x   –   which implies that (x – )     . Therefore we
                                 1               1
            get
                                      1          1 
                                                        2
                                             2
                                        (x   ) f(x)dx       2 f(x)dx
                                                   
                                                 1 
                                              2
                                           =    2    f(x)dx.
                                                 
                                                      2
                                                        2
                                                   2
            Similarly for x  ] +  , [ also we have (x – )       and therefore
                              1                       1
                                                       
                                                     2
                                             2
                                        (x   ) f(x)dx    2    f(x)dx
                                                     1
                                      1             1 
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