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Unit 29: The Lebesgue Integral of Bounded Functions




          functions have their upper and lower integrals both equal to their integral as defined in the last  Notes
                                           __
          section. In other words, if Î S (E) then  A ò  =  A ò  =  A ò  , where the last integral is as defined in
                                   0           __
                                              __
          the last section. It is also clear that  - <  f  A ò =  f <   whenever they are defined; we investigate
                                          __ A ò
                   __
          when  ò  f  A ò =  f .
                __ A
                                                          __
          Proposition: Let f be as in the above definition. Then  ò  f  A ò =  f  for all A  E if and only if f is
                                                      __ A
          measurable.
          Proof: () Let f be a bounded measurable function defined on E which vanishes outside F with F
           E and m(F) < . Then for each positive integer n there are simple functions   ,   Î S (E)
                                                                                n
                                                                            n       0
          vanishing outside F such that    f     and 0    –    1/n E on E (Why?). Hence for any A
                                                   n
                                          n
                                   n                   n
           E, we have
                     0   ò  A f -  ò  A f  (subtraction makes sense since both integrals are finite)
                         __
                         A ò  -  __ A ò  n  (definition of  ò  A f and ò  A f )
                           n

                     = ò A (  -  n  )
                          n
                     = ò  (  -   )  (  =  = 0 outside F)
                       A F  n  n   n   n
                        Ç
                         F ò  -   n )  (   –    0 on F and A Ç F  F)
                         (
                                    n
                            n
                                        n
                        m(F)/n  (1,    –   1/n on F)
                                    n
                                        n
          for all n. Letting n  we have  ò  f =  ò  f . (m(F) < )
                                      A    A
          () Suppose  ò  f =  ò  f   for any A E. Then  ò  f =  ò  f . Denote the common value by L. Then for
                      A    A                   E    E
          all positive  integers n there exists    n ,  n  S (E) such that     f     on E  and  L  – 1/n  
                                                                    n
                                                             n
                                               0
           E ò    E ò    L 1/n . Let  = sup   and    = inf  . We shall show  =    a.e. on E. (Then the
                      +
                                                    n
             n
                  n
                                     n
                                                  n
                                       n
          desired conclusion follows since then  < f <   on E implies that  = f =    a.e. on E and hence
          f is measurable.) To show that  =   a.e. on E, let  = {x Î E : (x)    (x)} and   = {x Î E :   (x)
                                                                          i
          – (x) > 1/i}. Then  =    i 1  . We wish to show m() = 0, which will be true if we can show m( ) i
                                i
                              =
          = 0 for all i. Now for any i and n, since    –      –  > 1/i on  , we have
                                           n
                                                                i
                                               n
               1         1
                m( i  = ò  i    (by definition of the integral)
                    )
               i         i
                      ò  (  -   )
                        i   n  n
                        (
                      ò  -   )  (   –    0 on E and i  E)
                       E  n   n    n  n
                      ò  -   n
                             E ò
                          n
                       E
                      2/n
          Letting n  we have m( ) = 0 for all i, completing our proof.
                                 i
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