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Unit 2: Legendre’s Polynomials




                                                                                                Notes
          Putting  a  1 hx  and  b  h  (x  1)

          so that                 a 2  b 2  = (1 hx ) 2  h 2 (x 2  1) 1 2xh h  2
          Thus, we have from (i)

                                                                 1
                          (1 2xh h 2 )  1/2  =  1 hx h  (x 2  1) cos  d
                                            0

                                                                1
                                        =     1 h x   x 2  1 cos  d
                                            0

                                                   1
                                        =    (1 ht ) d           where  t  x  x 2  1 cos
                                            0
                                                    2 2
                                  n
                                                            n n
          or                     h P n ( ) =  (1 ht h t  ... h t  ...) d
                                     x
                                            0
                              n
          Equating coefficient of h  we get
                                                                  n
                                              n
                                     x
                                   p n ( ) =  t d    x   x 2  1 cos  d
                                            0      0
                                           1         2       n
                                     x
                                   P n ( ) =   x   (x  1) cos  d
                                             0
          Deductions
          (i)  Putting  x  cos  in above relation, we get

                        1
                                          n
               P n (cos )  (cos  i  sin cos ) d  .
                          0
          (ii)  If we take n = 1 and +ve sign, then we get
                     1
                  x
               P 1 ( )   x   [(x 2  1)]cos  d  .
                       0
          Laplace’s Second Integral for P (x): When n is a Positive Integer. Show that
                                    n

                                           1           d
                                     x
                                   P n ( ) =                  n  1
                                             0       2
                                                x  (x   1)cos
          Proof: From integral calculus, we have

                                  d                        2   2
                                        =          ,  where  a  b  .               ...(i)
                              0 a b cos     (a 2  b 2 )


          Let  a  xh  1  and  b  h  (x 2  1)

          so that                 a 2  b 2  = 1 2xh h 2





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